4-26-23
Either Genesis 1:27 is true or it is false.
“So God created man in His own image; in the image of God He created him; male and female He created them” (Genesis 1:27, NKJV).
The NKJV and other translations use “man” and “him” while some use “mankind.” The wording offends many in our time, like the feminists who believe the Bible is misogynistic; or especially the trans+ community who think there is somehow “fluidity” in gender (i.e., they think there should be more options than the basic “man” and “woman”).
My point for quoting Genesis 1:27 is to show that God, the Author of Life, created only 2 genders/sexes: male and female.
The theories of transgenders go so far from the truth it is excessively egregious as the LGBTQ+ camp tells us that God created MANY sexes/genders yet give us no real proof of the same. If He had or does create more than 2, why don’t we find ONE single Scripture in the whole Bible confirming this?
Man/Male:
If one is to look up the word “man” in the Hebrew/Greek Concordance of the Bible, one will discover this word is used hundreds of times. The word for “man” has several meanings, but I’ll give two that are used more than others: Hebrew (as in my text, Genesis 1:27) = ’adam, = a human being (an individual or the species, mankind, etc.). The other word is ’iysh = a man as an individual or a male person; act in a manly way (see Genesis 2:23 where the name Adam is used). These two words are used hundreds of times, distinguishing them from woman/female, that is ’iyshshah.
Greek: There are several words that define “man” in the Greek, the most common is anthropos = “a human being; – certain, man, an individual male, fellow, husband, sir. Matthew 4:4 is the first text in the New Testament to use anthropos as “a human being.” (See its other meanings in the Greek Concordance.)
My Point
My point in all this is to show that God created two genders/sexes, not 3 or more. The feckless and feeble Potus pervert that rules from the White House (the “Pink House”) backs the trans community, thus calling God and the Bible liars. But what can we expect from the D.C. Hellscape?
God gives sexuality to human beings as their means to continue in existence. Strictly speaking, male homosexuals and female lesbians and trans people (who have been mutilated by surgery) cannot continue life or propagate existence.
Created
Note how many times the word “created” is found in Genesis: Genesis 1:1,21,27 (2 times); 2:3,4; 5:1,2 (twice); 6:7; a total of 11 times. Genesis clearly reveals that God created male and female (Genesis 1:27; 5:2), – you are either ONE or THE OTHER! – never ever mentioning a third gender/sex, never ever mentioning that the one could be the other, and definitely never even alluding to there being some possibility of non-affinity between both (non-binary), as if a man or woman could be neither.
Female
In Genesis we find “female” used for human beings and female animals: Genesis 1:27; 5:2 = human; then we see 6:19; 7:2 (twice), 3, 9, 16 all referring to animals/birds/etc. Hebrew: female = neqebah = a woman. Greek: thelus, from thelazo = woman, the nipple/to suck/breast: female gender.
Male/Female
Now we will go to the New Testament where Jesus Himself (a man/male) said: “Have you not read that He who made (created) them at the beginning made them male and female?” quoting Genesis 1:27 and 5:2. Jesus could have added a third creation, that is, a trans person or non-binary, but HE DID NOT!!!
Jesus said that God made ONE male/man and ONE female/woman – they both were called “Adam” (Genesis 5:2). Some versions have Adam, others have mankind, as the NKJV does. Adam: Hebrew, ’adam = a human being, that is, mankind or humankind.
So, the original creation of humanity is in two complimentary genders, male and female, as Scripture clearly reveals. Yet the current regime of Communists chooses to LIE to the public about what the Bible says and what is COMMON SENSE BIOLOGY. Utterly deplorable!
The Bible condemns perversions in BOTH Testaments. Yes, the New Testament condemns liars and perverts: it condemns LGBTQ+ inclinations and practices as well as heterosexual sex-sins (1 Timothy 1:10; 1 Corinthians 6:9-10; Romans 1:26-27; and all those echo the moral code in Leviticus 18:22, et al.).
F.Y.I.
On the essentials of clear expression of the terms “gay” and “homosexual”: By now everyone knows or should know that “homosexuality” was not a coined word in Biblical times; the correct word was “sodomy” or “sodomite.” These were titles derived from the town named Sodom. Both Sodom and Gomorrah refer to homosexuality; both cities were known for this sin, and it was grievous unto the LORD:
“And the LORD said, Because the outcry against Sodom and Gomorrah is GREAT, and because their SIN is very grave…” (Genesis 18:20). The outrageous SINS of these two cities were an affront to the righteousness of God (see 19:4-8). We know what God did to these cities: fire and brimstone rained down. The men of Sodom were aggressive homosexuals, bent on raping innocent travelers (19:4): “…where are the men who came to you tonight? Bring them out to us that we might KNOW them carnally” (19:5, NKJV).
Those who defend sodomy (like many Churchites!) try to convince us that the sodomites just wanted to check the passports of the two men (who were actually angels!). So Sodom’s sin was “inhospitality.” How STUPID. How can they reconcile 18:20 with 19:5? IMPOSSIBLE!
Besides, Jude in the New Testament gives us a discourse on this issue:
V. 4 – mentions people who turned God’s grace into lasciviousness (unbridled sexual indulgence)
V. 5 – refers to after the Exodus when God destroyed the unbelievers, no doubt referring to the men and women who danced naked in sexualized worship of the golden calf
V. 7 – continuing in this theme of SEX SINS, it directly addresses Sodom and Gomorrah: “Sodom and Gomorrha, and the cities about them in like manner, giving themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh…” Does this sound like God was angry with their “inhospitality”?
So, what is the purpose of the Sodom story? Verse 7 finishes, explaining: Sodom is “set forth for an example [of what happens when you indulge in SEXUAL VICE!], suffering the VENGEANCE OF ETERNAL FIRE.”
Sodomy is a SIN. Look at what Jesus says in reference to judgment: Matthew 10:15, Sodom and Gomorrah are mentioned; Matthew 11:23-24, Sodom is mentioned; the same is found in Mark 6:11 and Luke 10:12; Peter mentions these cities in 2 Peter 2:6-7 — “and turning the cities of Sodom and Gomorrah into ashes, condemned them to destruction, making them an example to those who afterward would live ungodly; and delivered righteous Lot, who was oppressed by the filthy conduct of the wicked.”
Genesis 19 makes it clear that sexual perversion was the primary cause for the destruction of those cities. Lot refused to join the “FILTHY” club of Sodom and Gomorrah. Do you think the LORD/Lord/Spirit has changed Their minds concerning sexual sins, be they homo or hetero?
“Know Them”
Let’s go back to Genesis 19:5 where the word “know” is used: “Bring them (the 2 men) out to us, that we may know them.” This word “know” has the same meaning as Genesis 4:1 – “Now Adam knew Eve, his wife, and she conceived…”
The verb “knew” is a euphemism for sexual intercourse. It describes an intimate relationship that “includes ardor and passion, but also mutuality and oneness.”
The word “know” in Hebrew is yada, which has a great variety of senses figuratively, literally, euphemistically and inferentially. We can know what “know” refers to by the context of Genesis 19. Genesis 4:1, “knew” and Genesis 19:5 “know” mean the same. There is a difference though in these texts: 19:5 is sexual lust/perversion, not Godly love like 4:1. A big difference between sexual SIN and the blessing of intimacy in a Biblical Godly marriage.
“Gay”: New Coined Word
“Gay” shares with ”black” and “chicano” and others the distinction of being both self-applied by the segment of society it describes and adopted generally. Some dislike the “G” word, for it would take a certain willful perverseness to read “homosexual” into the use of “gay” applied to inanimate nouns in certain contexts. Close attention to the context will almost always ensure that your intended meaning comes through clearly.
My question is: Are the majority of gays really “gay,” meaning truly “happy”? Suicides and DEPRESSION are VERY common among them, and always have been. Self-hatred is just a normal prevailing characteristic among “gays.”
Gender F.Y.I.
The use of “gender” to mean “sex” has been cited with disapproval in books for its usage this way, because it was originally a linguistic term. Even in 1926 this issue was raised. One educator wrote: “Gender is a grammatical term only. To talk of persons or creatures of the masculine or feminine gender, meaning the male or female sex, is either a jocularity (permissible or not according to context) or a blunder.”
Those who study or write books on grammar claim the grammatical gender denotes a subclass of words that determines agreement with other words or grammatical forms:
Example: a French noun of the feminine gender, such as femme, “woman,” takes the definite article la, while a noun of the masculine gender, such as fils, “son,” takes le. Many commentators point out that “sex” does not always enter into it: the French word for pen, plume, belongs to the feminine gender and takes la; the word for “pencil,” crayon, is masculine and lakes le; neither of these have anything to do with “sex,” obviously.
In contrast, the “sex” sense of gender is actually centuries old. The Oxford English Dictionary records it as early as the 1200s, and it was included as a standard sense in the dictionaries of both Samuel Johnson (1755) and Noah Webster (1828).
…CONTINUED in Part 2…
~ Gen. Jim, POW — RELEASED!
